Romans 3:21-26, True Equality (part 2)

The Reason for Displaying His Righteousness from the Perspective of Man (v. 21–24)

Belief in the Faithfulness of Christ (v. 22–24)

Paul has just finished describing the lack of distinction between people in terms of everyone’s culpability for sin and lacking righteousness. Now in verse 24 Paul focuses on the positive aspects of all humanity being equal: everyone is given the same access point to grace through Christ. In the phrase “Being justified freely by His grace” we again see the theme of righteousness come into play. If we take “lack of glory” to indicate a “lack of righteousness” that all people have on their own merits, then here we see how all people are “declared righteous” (literal meaning of justified) only through grace in Christ. Again, this righteousness cannot be earned on the basis of works or merit (3:20), but solely by the grace of God.

This is emphasized in the word “freely” (δωρεὰν), indicating the manner of this justification: not earned, but free. “By His grace” also indicates that the means of justification is free as well. Paul’s emphasis is clear: we are declared righteous freely by His free gift.

Paul now includes a third modifier of “justified” with the phrase “through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus.” Here the idea of “redemption” (ἀπολυτρώσεως) is to be best understood as “being bought with a ransom.” This word is somewhat rare and is a combination of several words meaning literally “to buy back from” and it was used often in connection with the manumission of slaves (BDAG). Paul uses this verb again in Ephesians 1:7, “In him we have redemption through his blood, the forgiveness of sins” (NIV), and then almost identically in Colossians 1:14.

This relationship to our “forgiveness” leads some to conclude that the real idea is emancipation or deliverance with no concept of payment (Cranfield, 1:206). But when we consider how God brought about this forgiveness through Christ, and we take into account the numerous passages that speak of Christians being bought with a price (1 Corinthians 6:20, 7:23 and 1 Timothy 2:6 from Paul, and then Mark 10:45, Matthew 20.28, Acts 20:28, 1 Peter 1:18f, 2 Peter 2:1, Revelation 5:9, though the verbs are different here they can be seen as synonyms), it should be clear that our forgiveness came at a cost.

God does not merely forgive the bad things that we do; He transforms the bad thing that we are. This is the essence of being re-deemed: reckoned again. We were created righteous in the image of God but became marred by sin and made slaves to its ruling power. In Christ we have been purchased out of our slavery and reckoned as righteous again. This idea of purchasing fits well with imagery of the other two modifiers we have already discussed: “freely” and “by His grace.” We cannot earn justification because it is free, a gift, it has already been purchased by Christ.

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Romans 3:21-26, True Equality (part 1)

The Reason for Displaying His Righteousness from the Perspective of Man (v. 21–24)

Belief in the Faithfulness of Christ (v. 22–24)

Paul now goes on to explain in verses 23–24 why no distinction is made amongst people when it comes to the revelation of God’s righteousness. Verse 23 focuses on their equality of guiltiness for sin and verse 24 centers around their equality in the availability of grace for all people.

Here in verse 23 “for all have sinned,” we again see the word “all,” continuing to emphasize universality (see also 3:9, 10, 11, 12, 19, 20, 22). This verse also acts as a summary the preceding section of 1:18–3:20, much like we see occurring in 5:1 and 8:1 as well (Cranfield, 1:204). The tense of the verb Paul chooses to use for “sin” (ἥμαρτον) leaves the timing of the action ambiguous.[1] He neither emphasizes past actions nor continual actions in the present. Rather his point seems to simply be that sin occurs, pointing more toward the concept of sin as a nature rather than simply actions that take place at certain times.

The next phrase “and fall short of the glory of God” is to be viewed as a parallel statement to “all have sinned.” Much like “the righteousness of God,” “the glory of God” is another important phrase to be considered. God’s glory seems to be directly tied in to the role creation was meant to play. This comes out most specifically in Paul’s use of “glory” (δόξα) in 1 Corinthians 11:7 where he states “man… he is the image and glory (δόξα) of God.” This concept also clearly plays out in Romans. In Romans 1:20 what has been made is an evident display of God’s attributes which 1:23 links to His glory. However because of sin entering the world through Adam (5:12–19), 1:23 makes clear how humanity has exchanged the glory of God for other, lesser, sinful images. Consequently humanity failed to honor God as image bearers, or more literally “give Him glory” (ἐδόξασαν in 1:21).

"Having so drastically defaced the divine image, they have, without exception (no distinction), forfeited the privilege of reflecting His glory" (R.B. Gaffin Jr., "Glory," Dictionary of Paul and His Letters, 348, parenthesis added. In the IVP Bible Background Commentary, Craig Keener suggests the possibility that here Paul refers o to no one living up to God;s standard of justice (420). This would make good sense in the context of God revealing His righteousness. God needs to demonstrate His righteousness through Christ to all humanity because, through the sin of humanity, He was currently being imaged as unrighteous.

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[1] ἥμαρτον is in the aorist tense, leaving the action undefined. “It is an equally true statement that ‘all sin’ (present customary) and ‘all have sinned’ (perfect past action with continuing results). Therefore the choice of the aorist by Paul was used to emphasize one aspect or to possibly say less (or to stress the fact of humanity’s sinfulness) than the present or the perfect would have done” (Wallace, 503).

Romans 3:21-26, The Faithfulness of Christ

The Reason for Displaying His Righteousness from the Perspective of Man (v. 21–24)

Belief in the Faithfulness of Christ (v. 22–24)

In verse 22, Paul introduces a closer definition of “the righteousness of God,” defining the righteousness in question as that which is through the faithfulness of Christ. Here the traditional translation has been “faith in Christ,” but grammatically “the faithfulness of Christ” is preferred. The complete argument for this translation is too long and encumbered by discussion of Greek to include here. To get the basics of it I would recommend reading the NET Bible note on this verse. If you would like my complete argument, please leave a comment so indicating and I would be happy to get that to you.

Let me nuance this by stating that this translation does not discount that that Christ is still the object of our faith, as that teaching cannot be denied in the letters of Paul.This translation merely implies that “the object of faith is a worthy object, for He himself is faithful. Though Paul elsewhere teaches justification by faith, this presupposes that the object of our faith is reliable and worthy of such faith” (Wallace, 116). Conceptually, “the faithfulness of Christ” is a better fit as well. It is in line with the past temporal emphasis of Paul, his focus on the gospel events themselves, the faithfulness of Christ as a sacrifice. This is not to imply that the faithfulness of Christ was only temporary, but simply that Paul’s emphasis was on the historical action of the cross.

Though it may be hard to distinguish it in English, the phrase “for all who believe” (εἰς πάνταςτοὺς πιστεύοντας) modifies “righteousness” and not “the faithfulness of Christ.” Here we now begin to see Paul shift his focus from simply the historical, temporal demonstration of righteousness to its long lasting implications for humanity.[1] This “righteousness of God” is made manifest “for/to all those who believe” and this is done without distinction.

Following the concept of God’s righteousness which we see in verse 26 (both His inward nature and His outward actions), here we see Paul discussing the second aspect, His outward actions. The phrase “for there is no distinction” is important to keep in mind here. Up until this point in Romans a phrase that Paul has repeated has been “to the Jew first, and also to the Greek” (1:16; 2:9, 10) noting the natural revelation made clear to all humanity and the special revelation that been presented to the Jews. But now this special revelation has been presented to all humanity, that just as all will fail to be justified by the Law (3:20), now all can be justified through belief in the faithful sacrifice of Christ.

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[1] τοὺς πιστεύοντας is a present substantival participle with gnomic and continual force, “to everyone who continually believes” (Wallace, 620–21).

Romans 3:21-26, God's Righteousness Comes on His Terms

The Reason for Displaying His Righteousness from the Perspective of Man (v. 21–24)

Manifestation of Righteousness on God’s Terms (v. 21)

With the phrase “But now” (Νυνὶ δὲ) Paul clearly begins a new section. There is some question as to whether this phrase should be understood as logical or temporal. It is best to take it as both (Barrett, 69). As we saw in the introduction, these verses discussing righteousness from God stand in logical contrast to the failed righteousness coming from the Law in v. 20. This is also supported by the modifying phrase "apart from the law." But a temporal contrast also makes good sense, seeing this section refer to a new phase in salvation history.[1] The presence of the word “revealed” (πεφανέρωται) lends support to this approach (Cranfield, 1:201). By something being “revealed” it would seem to indicate that there was a previous time in which it was concealed. The tense of the verb also points to this event having a beginning point, which Paul soon will show to be the death of Christ.[2] Conceptually, the temporal reference to the crucifixion of Christ (not merely its ongoing benefits) is a vital part of Paul’s argument. We will more fully develop this idea later.

The phrase “apart from the law” deserves some explanation. It should not be taken as Paul stating that the Law has been set aside in favor of righteousness from God through Jesus Christ. Specifically we must keep in mind that Christ came not to abolish the law but to fulfill it (Matthew 5:17). Here “apart from the law” must be understood in light of verse 20. It is not the Law that is being set aside but rather humanity’s hope in its own execution of the Law. This righteousness is being manifested as something that is not earned by man’s fulfillment of the Law (Cranfield, 1:201). It is not that God’s righteousness couldn’t have been revealed through the Law, but when it was, it always led to wrath (Barrett, 69). But now, as Paul will go on to describe, this new revelation of God’s righteousness not only satisfies God’s perfect wrath against sin, but also permits Him to lavish His mercy on those who believe through faith.

“The righteousness of God” is a persistent theme throughout this passage.[3] For the sake of space we will examine this phrase in greater detail in verse 26 which deals more explicitly with righteousness being tied directly to the very nature of God. For now we will say (based on an examination of verse 26) that the righteousness of God refers to both His internal righteous character and His external righteous acts.[4]

It is both God’s being right and doing right that are revealed in the gospel of Christ (Barrett, 69). Not only are they revealed in the gospel of Christ, but they are also “attested to by the Law and the prophets.” This phrase is typically used throughout the New Testament to refer to the entire Old Testament scriptures (see Matthew 5:17; 7:12; 22:40; Acts 24:14; 28:23). This righteousness of God that has been revealed has attestation in the Old Testament. In other words, the gospel is consistent with the Old Testament: the Old Testament is understood as a witness to this righteousness, this gospel of Jesus Christ (Cranfield, 1:202).

This is a concept consistent throughout Romans (see 1:2; 9:25–33; 10:6–13, 16–21; 11:1–10, 26–29; 15:8–12). Most notably, Paul will use this passage to explain how this righteousness comes to believers only through faith. He will then dedicate all of chapter 4 to demonstrating how the Old Testament testified to Abraham being declared righteous on the basis of His faith and not his works. In the present context, Paul now proceeds to explain more specifically this righteousness of God.

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[1] See NET Bible note on Νυνὶ δέ in verse 26.

[2]πεφανέρωται is a perfect verb. In 1:17 Paul uses a synonym ἀποκαλύπτεται which is present indicative to refer to the ongoing preaching of the gospel. Here the perfect relates to the manifestation of the gospel events themselves (Cranfield, 202 & Barrett, 69).

[3] The term for righteousness, δικαιοσύνη occurs four times within these six verses, δίκαιος also appears, as does the verb δικαιόω twice.

[4] This is contra Cranfield who sees this righteousness in verses 21 and 22 taken in the same sense as 1:17, a status of righteousness before God as God’s gift (1:202). This is clearly not the sense of righteousness in verse 26 which refers to the very nature of God and it would make little sense for Paul to use the same term with such different meanings in a relatively short amount of space. If we follow Cranfield here, the flow of Paul’s argument is then: God demonstrates our status as being righteous through Christ in order that He would be righteous. This doesn’t follow since our status as being righteous is an act of God’s mercy, not His justice. Rather it makes better sense to see the flow of the argument as being God demonstrated His perfectly righteous nature in Christ so that He would be righteous. This may seem redundant, but in order for a being to be perfectly righteous this necessitates a demonstration of the righteousness, which we see in Christ bearing the penalty of sin.

Romans 3:21-26, Introduction

There has come a point in all of our lives when we have questioned the intentions of God. Either through trials and hardships that we ourselves have undergone or through the sufferings we see descending upon the world as a whole, the question creeps into our minds “Is God really just?”

This question may be only a fleeting thought in the midst of a passionate dispute against God or it may become well entrenched over the years in the heart of even those established in their faith. Perhaps the question of God’s justice so readily jumps to the forefront of our minds in the midst of trouble because it is so often attacked by the secular world that sees evil as proof of God’s non-existence. Not only does Satan raise the seed of doubt from within, but he is sure to nourish it from without until it has firmly taken root in our hearts. But thankfully God has not kept quiet on this issue. He has indeed answered His critics as well as comforted His people. Never did a vindication of the God’s goodness and justice ring as loudly as in Romans 3:21–26.

To set the context for this passage, Paul begins his letter to the Romans with an introduction of himself and his gospel (1:1–17), concluding the first section with the theme of the epistle “For I am not ashamed of the gospel, for it is God's power for salvation to everyone who believes, to the Jew first and also to the Greek. For the righteousness of God is revealed in the gospel from faith to faith, just as it is written, ‘The righteous by faith will live’” (Romans 1:16–17, NET). This is followed by an extensive treatment on the doctrine of justification, arguing for the need of it (1:18–3:20), defining what it is (3:21–5:21), describing how it affects the individual (6:1–8:39), and elucidating Israel’s rejection of it (9:1­–11:36). Paul then discusses the implications and duties in the life of the believer in light of this doctrine (12:1–15:13) before concluding his letter (15:14­–16:27).[1]

Our particular passage of Romans 3:21–26 serves as a bridge between Paul’s argument for the need of justification and his definition of justification. He dedicates the beginning of his epistle to the proof that all humanity, both Jews and Gentiles, lie under the condemnation of sin (3:9). He follows this statement with a long series of Old Testament quotations to demonstrate his case and then increases the futility of the situation with the conclusion “by works of the law no human being will be justified in his sight” (Romans 3:20).

How then are we to have any hope if we are still condemned even following the Law? If we are so wretched, then how can God mercifully redeem His creation while still remaining righteous in His wrath against sin? These are the questions Paul now undertakes in revealing the true source of justification: the cross of Jesus Christ.

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[1] Book divisions taken from David K. Lowery, “Romans” (unpublished class notes in NT105 Exegesis of Romans, Dallas Theological Seminary, Fall 2008), 1.

Romans 3:21-26, Translation and Outline

Translation

^3:21 But now, apart from the law, the righteousness of God has been manifested, being attested to by the law and the prophets, ²² specifically the righteousness of God through the faithfulness of Jesus Christ for all who believe. For there is no distinction, ²³ for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God, ²⁴ being justified freely by His grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus. ²⁵ God displayed Him publicly as the means of expiation in His blood through faith. (He did this) to demonstrate His righteousness because in the forbearance of God He had withheld His wrath against the sins previously committed. ²⁶ This was to demonstrate His righteousness in the present time so that He would be just and the justifier of the one (who lives) in the faithfulness of Jesus.

Main Idea

The righteousness of God is vindicated through the sacrifice of Christ that demonstrates both God’s mercy to humanity who believes in Him through faith and also His wrath against sin.

Outline

I. The righteousness of God has now been made manifest in the obedience of Christ Jesus to bring about redemption for all of humanity (v. 21–24).

A. The righteousness of God has now been manifested (v. 21).

1. The manifestation of God’s righteousness is distinct from humanity’s fulfillment of the Law’s requirements (v. 21a).

2. The manifestation of God’s righteousness is consistently revealed throughout the Old Testament scriptures (v. 21b).

B. The righteousness of God is specifically culminated in the faithful obedience of Jesus Christ (v. 22a).

C. The righteousness of God is made available for all who believe (without distinction) in this faithful obedience of Jesus Christ (v. 22b–24).

1. The reason the righteousness of God is for all those who believe is because there are no differences amongst humanity in regards to a person’s righteousness standing before God (v. 22b, c).

2. The reason there is no distinction between people is because all of humanity is equally culpable of sin and equally presented with the redemption of Christ (v. 23–24).

a. All of humanity is equally culpable in its failure to attain to the righteous standards established by God (v. 23).

i. The entirety of humanity has presented an offense against the nature of the Holy God.

ii. The entirety of humanity has failed to meet the perfect standard set forth by the gloriousness of God.

b. All of humanity is equally presented with the means of redemption through the free grace of Jesus Christ (v. 24).

i. The entirety of humanity has before it the possibility of being fixed in a right relationship with God purely by His free grace.

ii. The grace of God which comes freely to all people is only made possible through the redeeming actions of Christ.

II. The redemption of all humanity through faith in Jesus Christ is brought about solely by His bloody public sacrifice as the means of expiation (v. 25a).

III. The reason why God displayed Christ publicly as the means of expiation was to make clear His righteous character and actions (v. 25b–26).

A. The reason why God displayed Christ publicly as the means of expiation was to exhibit His righteousness (v. 25b).

1. The reason why God clearly made known His righteousness is because He had previously withheld His wrath against sin.

2. The withholding of God’s wrath against sin occurred because of the great mercy of God.

B. The reason that God display Christ publicly as propitiation presently was specifically to demonstrate that He by nature both defines and emanates justice (v. 26).

1. The reason why God demonstrated His righteousness at the present time through the sacrifice of Christ was so that God would exemplify His nature of being perfectly just.

2. The reason why God demonstrated His righteousness at the present time through the sacrifice of Christ was so that He alone would justify mankind apart from works.

Sunday Lyrics: Long Road out of Eden

Lyrics from "Long Road out of Eden"
by The Eagles
on the album Long Road out of Eden





...
Freeways flickering; cell phones chiming a tune
We're riding to Utopia; road map says we'll be arriving soon
Captains of the old order clinging to the reins
Assuring us these aches inside are only growing pains
But it's a long road out of Eden

...
Went down the road to Damascus, the road to Mandalay
Met the ghost of Caesar on the Appian Way
He said, "It's hard to stop this binging once you get a taste
But the road to empire is a bloody, stupid waste"

Behold the bitten apple, the power of the tools
But all the knowledge in the world is of no use to fools
And it's a long road out of Eden

Romans 9:14-18, Conclusions

Though we cannot give a full exegetical treatment of this difficult topic in this space provided, remember what is clear: Paul’s emphasis is on the sovereignty of God in salvation. Paul’s argument in this passage could be summarized thusly:

(v. 14) We should never call God unjust.

(v. 15) …because His revelation of who He is in salvation is that He is free to be merciful.

(v. 16) So then humanity is unable to merit salvation since it is an act of mercy.

(v. 17) …also because God has the specific purpose of self-glorification in His free distribution of mercy (as He should).

(v. 18) So then God is completely sovereign over all humanity and free to give/withhold mercy.

The real wonder is not “Why are some not saved?” but rather “Why is anyone saved?”. This should lead the church to a continuous remembrance and thankfulness for the grace they have received. This should flow out in transforming ways into a culture focused on justice and deservedness based on works. It is radical good news that salvation is based on mercy and not justice.

So, whenever you ask those hard questions of God, as to why He has not saved a beloved family member or friend, instead of responding in anger and frustration, mindfully turn your thoughts to joy at the thought of Him saving you. We are not meant to have all the answers from God, but He has deemed worthy to reveal to us is His sovereignty and promise that His plans are good.

We will do well to remember Paul’s conclusion of Romans 9–11:

Oh, the depth of the riches and wisdom and knowledge of God! How unsearchable are his judgments and how fathomless his ways! For who has known the mind of the Lord, or who has been his counselor? Or who has first given to God, that God needs to repay him? For from him and through him and to him are all things. To him be glory forever! Amen (Romans 11:33–36).

Romans 9:14-18, God's Sovereign Revelation (part 3)

The Explanation (v. 15–18)

God is most glorified in the freedom of unconditional election (v. 17–18)

God’s sovereignty in the acceptance/rejection of His revelation (v. 18)

Though we have shown that determining the extent of the hardening as temporal or eternal is not the main purpose of Paul in this passage it is still an important topic to address as a secondary point. We addressed before the parallel inference in verse 16 where Paul mentions the inability of “the one who runs” and how a full understanding of that phrase cannot be understood from this passage alone (see 1 Cor. 9:24; Philippians 2:16). Similarly, an understanding of “hardens” must be left to other scriptures for an accurate interpretation. In order to determine if Paul uses “hardens” (σκληρύνει) to mean a predestined damnation of certain people, the question we are really asking is twofold: does Paul understand the term to be a predetermining of God or a response of God, and secondly does Paul use the term in a temporal or eternal sense?

In it’s original context in Exodus, “harden” refers to “a condition of the heart which renders it insensible to promptings and inflexible of will and thus, in Pharaoh’s case, adamantly opposed to God’s demands” (Piper, 142).[1] Some will argue that in the Exodus context God only hardened Pharaoh as a result of his self hardening, citing the mix of passages that refer to both God hardening Pharaoh, such as in Exodus 9:12, and Pharaoh hardening himself, such as in Exodus 8:15 among others (Murray, 2:49). This would imply that the hardening of God is done merely in response to human stubbornness and cannot be interpreted as a predestined arrangement.

This line of reasoning has several faults. The first of which is that the initial reference to the hardening of Pharaoh in Exodus occurs in 4:21 in which God states “…I will harden his heart so that he will not let the people go.” This passage would seem to indicate that God determined the hardening of Pharaoh for God’s redemptive purposes before Pharaoh was even confronted by Moses. The original intent of the author in Exodus was to demonstrate the purposes of God (Piper, 139–155). A second fault is that Paul himself confirms this interpretation by his modifying the quotation of Exodus 9:16 in verse 17 to specifically bring out the idea of God’s purposes (see previous postings). This emphasis on God’s sovereign and determined purposes rather than God’s response to the sins of humanity is in line with the context of Paul’s argument in this passage. Particularly with v. 13 in mind, God’s hatred of Esau was not a reaction to his behavior because that hatred came when “the twins were not yet born and had done nothing good or bad” (v. 11). So then, “hardens” seems to be used in the sense of an action God predetermines.

Now the question remains does Paul use “hardens” in a temporal or eternal sense? Again returning to the Exodus context, the narrative clearly is concerned with God guiding events in history, not to a particular individual’s eternal destiny. There is even a rabbinic tradition based on Exodus 9:15f and 15:11 that Pharaoh was saved from the sea and repented (Piper, 156). Though the end result of Pharaoh’s hardening is up for interpretation, the real question at hand is what is the intended use of “hardens” by Paul. This word for “hardens” (σκληρύνει) is used by Paul in only this instance, so in order to determine the intent with which it was used, we must examine Paul’s usage of analogous words.

A similar word etymologically is used in Romans 2:5 (σκληρότητά) and two synonyms are used in Romans 11:7 (πωρόω, see also 2 Corinthians 3:14) and 11:25 (πώρωσις, see also Ephesians 4:18). Within the context of Romans 9–11 the hardening of Israel is depicted as being partial and temporary as part of the greater plan of God in salvation history.[2] If we also consider the pairing of “hardens” with “mercy” (ἐλεέω), and examine Paul’s use of mercy, it also seems to indicate a usage focused on the temporal and physical world with only secondary or implied references to a person’s eternal salvation (similarly to the use of “hardening” in the case of Pharaoh in Exodus).[3]

Paul then uses “hardens” in 9:18 to refer to those ignorant of God yet used by Him to accomplish His salvific purposes for others, and who through this process will themselves be made aware of God’s mercy and have the opportunity to become unhardened should they make that choice.[4] Taking “hardens” in this sense is confirmed by 9:19ff in which Paul then combats the false conclusion drawn from his argumentation where the response is to attack God for His predetermined damnation. Paul again confirms the sovereignty of God and proceeds to further explain His purposes in salvation history.

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[1] σκληρύνει in the LXX corresponds to the three Hebrew words dbk ((weigh heavily) qzx (to grow strong) hv,q' (hard, difficult, heavy) in Exodus 4–14.

[2] Verse 11:7 needs to be read within the context of at least 11:5–12. Here what the majority of Israel, save for a remnant, was hardened against was the realization that salvation comes by grace and not works (11:6). After citing two Old Testament quotations to again show God’s sovereignty over this hardening (so that God cannot be said to be unrighteous) Paul goes on to speak of their return to inclusion (11:12), and of being grafted back in (11:23). In 11:25 the partial and temporary aspect of this hardening is explicitly stated, πώρωσις ἀπὸ μέρους τῷ Ἰσραὴλ γέγονεν ἄχρι οὗ…. The phrase ἀπὸ μέρους is adverbial modifying γέγονεν and ἄχρι οὗ is a temporal conjunction here meaning ‘until’ (Cranfield, 2:575).

[3] Mercy (ἐλεέω) is used by Paul twelve times, half of which (6) are within Romans 9–11 (again pointing to the emphasis on mercy rather than hardening). It always seems to be used to refer to gracious gifts of God given to His people in an earthly setting for the ultimate purposing of bringing others to a saving faith. This can be clearly seen in 1 Timothy 1:13–16 (ἀλλὰ διὰ τοῦτο ἠλεήθην, ἵνα…ἐνδείξηται, ἵνα with subjunctive indicating purpose of Christ showing patience to receive others to eternal life) as well as in our current section in Romans 11:30–32 (…ἵνα τοὺς πάντας ἐλεήση, again ἵνα with subjunctive. This also argues against a universalism claim in that Christ isn’t necessarily going to show mercy to all men, but is capable of it). While mercy is only shown to those who receive eternal life, the eternal aspect is not the main emphasis of this word. I say this is much like Pharaoh in the Exodus account because there we have an example of one who if he remained in a state of hardening would receive eternal judgment, much like those who remain in mercy will one day receive eternal life. Except with mercy we know it is not a matter of remaining in it, but simply having it in the first place. Mercy and hardening may be two similar categories but this does not imply that their function is the same. Those who are hardened, ignorant of God, disobedient in unbelief, etc. (which is all humanity according to Paul earlier in Romans) are given the opportunity to receive God’s mercy. Once it has been received, they cannot return to being hardened in an eternal sense. This is the doctrine of eternal security.

[4] This is contra Piper who sees ‘hardens’ having explicit eternal consequences. He notes the connections between hardening and wrath in Romans 2:5, Ephesians 4:18 and 2 Corinthians 3:14 (156), but in each case ignores the possibility of mercy still being received by the hardened such as in Ephesians 2. He also sees Israel’s hardening in chapter 11 as unresponsiveness to the gospel which excludes them from salvation (157). Here again he ignores the emphasis on the grace of God and His ultimate plan of restoring Israel. Those who are hardened can still receive mercy. Piper also sees hardening as the counterpart of mercy which characteristically of Paul refers to eschatological salvation (159), yet we have discussed how this not necessarily the case. ‘Mercy’ and ‘saved’ are related but they are not synonyms. Two other points against Piper: 1) πωρόω is used in Mark 6:52 (though not from Paul, yet still NT authorship) to refer to the disciples. We cannot say the disciples were eternally hardened can we? 2) Another major point against Piper is a study of the word for “desire/will” (θέλω) as opposed to the word for “hardens” (σκληρύνω) which Piper focuses on. Particularly 1 Timothy 2:3–4, also from the hand of Paul, in which it is stated that God desires (θέλω) all men to be saved and come to a knowledge of the truth. How can it be that God desires all men to be saved, yet at the same time desires to predetermine an eternal hardening of some?